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TSPSC Group 2 2024 Paper 1 Mock Test
1. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to ‘Khelo India Youth Games 2023’ which were held in January 2024?
They were held in four cities of Tamil Nadu.
Conventional sports such as badminton and volleyball were a part of the games.
This is the second time that Khelo India Youth Games were held in South India.
Traditional sports such as kabaddi and yogasana were part of the Khelo India Youth Games 2023.
2. Who among the following was appointed as the new Comptroller and Auditor General of India in November 2024?
3. Where did the 13th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization (WTO) take place during February–March 2024?
4. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023?
Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 seeks to reserve one-third of total seats for women in both the Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies.
It was the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act.
5. Consider the following statements:
Government of Telangana announced to exempt Electric Vehicles (EVs) 100% from road tax and registration fee.
The tax exemption for EVs is applicable to both Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) and non-GHMC areas.
The exemption benefits are available for three years, until December 31, 2027. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
6. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network?
Kozhikode in Kerala was included as a ‘city of literature’ in 2023.
Jodhpur in Rajasthan was included as a ‘city of music’ in 2023.
7. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to IITs?
India and UAE signed an MOU to establish the first campus of IIT Delhi in Abu Dhabi in 2023.
IIT Madras opened its offshore campus in Zanzibar in 2023.
8. Which of the following statements are true in relation to North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
As of March 2024, NATO has 32 member countries.
Sweden joined NATO in 2024.
NATO headquarters is located at Paris.
Switzerland is a NATO member. choose the correct Answer:
9. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the second edition of the Oceanographers and Hydrographers Conference under the umbrella of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?
It was held in the National Institute of Oceanography in Visakhapatnam.
The Conference was held at Chennai and Hyderabad in January 2024.
The participants discussed on the theme of ‘Our Ocean is Our Future’.
Delegates from Maldives and Australia participated in this Conference.
10. Match the following in relation to the 70th National Film Awards, 2024:
A. Best feature film – I. Rishab Shetty
B. Best actor – II. Kantara
C. Best director – III. Aattam
D. Best popular film – IV. Salil Chowdhury & V. Sooraj Barjatya
11. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) successfully launched the mission Divyastra in March 2024.
The latest variant of Agni-5 missile is equipped with MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology.
India is the first country to have MIRV-equipped missile.
Agni-5 is a cruise missile.
12. Arrange the following states in ascending order based on number of assembly seats in each state as of March 2024:
Assam
Telangana
Chhattisgarh
Jharkhand & Uttarakhand
13. Match the Artificial Intelligence (AI) tools with their developers:
A. Chat GPT – I. Apple
B. Gemini (Bard) – II. Amazon
C. Alexa — III. OpenAI
IV. Google
14. Who among the following assumed the charge as the new Cabinet Secretary of India in August 2024?
15. Which of the following states ranked first for the second consecutive year in the State Food Security Index 2024, of the Food Safety Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?
16. Consider the following statements in relation to ‘Operation Dronagiri’:
It is a pilot project under the National Geospatial Policy 2022.
It is a new project under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
It was launched in November, 2024.
In the first phase, it will be implemented in Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
17. Arrange the following political parties in ascending order based on percentage of votes secured by these parties out of total votes polled in the general elections to Telangana State Assembly held on 30th November 2023:
Indian National Congress
Bharatiya Janata Party
Bharat Rashtra Samithi
Communist Party of India
18. In which of the following cities was SEMICON India 2024 held for shaping the Semiconductor Future?
19. The Nobel Prize in Physiology for the year 2024 was awarded to two scientists for:
20. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Smt. Sudha Murty was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India in March 2024.
Smt. Sudha Murty is a writer in Kannada language.
Smt. M. Bhargavan Snehalatha was appointed as a Supreme Court Judge by the President of India in April 2024.
21. Match the following Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) with their companies, as of November 2024:
A. Sundar Pichai – I. Adobe
B. Satya Nadella – II.IBM
C. Shantanu Narayen -III.Google
D. Arvind Krishna – IV. Microsoft
22. The newly elected President of Sri Lanka (September, 2024) Anura Kumara Dissanayake belongs to which political party?
23. Which of the following statements are true in relation to Oscar Awards 2024?
Cillian Murphy won the Best Supporting Actor award for the movie ‘Oppenheimer’.
Emma Stone won the Best Actress award for the movie ‘Poor Things’.
Christopher Nolan won the Best Actor award.
The Last Repair Shop’ won the Best Documentary Short Film award.
24. Consider the following statements in relation to India’s performance at Paris Paralympic Games 2024:
India won a total of 29 medals, including 7 gold, 9 silver and 13 bronze.
India secured 14th place among participating nations.
25. Consider the following statements in relation to the Global Technology Summit (GTS) 2023:
The 8th edition of the Summit was held in Paris in December 2023.
The theme of the 2023 Summit was ‘Geopolitics of Technology’.
26. Which of the following country was admitted into NATO in 2023?
27. Match the following BRICS Summits with their respective host countries:
A. 11th – I. India
B. 12th – II. China
C. 13th – III. Brazil
D. 14th- IV. Russia & V. South Africa
28. Yoweri Kaguta Museveni, the present Chairman of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) belongs to which of the following country ?
29. Consider the following statements in relation to the Global Biofuels Alliance:
It is initiated by the UNO.
WEF is part of the alliance
India is a member of the alliance.
Alliance launched in 2023 in New Delhi
30. Arrange the following international organisations in chronological order:
United Nations Organisation (UNO)
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
World Health Organisation (WHO)
World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)
31. Which statements about India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) are correct?
The project was signed at the G-20 Summit held in New Delhi in 2023.
It is a part of the G-7’s Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) project.
It is considered as a response to China’s Belt and Road Initiative project.
Saudi Arabia, European Union, India, UAE, UK, US, France and Egypt signed IMEC’s MoU.
32. The UN Global Compact Leaders Summit, 2024 is meant to review:
33. Five ICAR institutions and six locations are given below. Based on the location of the Headquarters of the Institute, match the following : A. Central Institute for Cotton Research – I. Varanasi
B. Central Rice Research Institute – II. Shimla
C. Indian Institute of Vegetable Research – III. Kolkata
D. Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research – IV. Cuttack
E. Central Potato Research Institute. – V. Lucknow & VI. Nagpur
34. Five Super Computers and six institutions are given below. Based on the location of the Super Computers, match the following : Super Computer Institute in which it is located A. PARAM Shakti I. IIT, Gandhinagar
B. PARAM Yukti – II. IISc, Bangalore
C. PARAM Ananta III. IIT, Kharagpur
D. PARAM Brahma IV. IIT, Hyderabad
E. PARAM Pravega V. IISER, Pune & VI. JNCASR, Bangalore
35. Bombay Blood group was discovered in______by___?
36. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the solar system?
The Sun is 180 million kilometres away from Earth
Sirius is a planet
Venus is the hottest planet. Choose the correct answer:
37. Which has the highest frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum?
38. Five Indian scientists and six fields of research are given below. Based on the field of research of the scientists, match the following : Name of the Scientist Field of Research A. Satyendranath Bose I. Statistics
B. D.R. Kaprekar – II. Chemistry
C. C.R. Rao – III. Botany
D. C.N.R. Rao – IV. Physics
E. Janaki Ammal – V. Mathematics & VI. Geology
39. Which of the following statements is/are correct related to enzymes, hormones and organic compounds ?
Enzymes lower the activation energy and then increase the rate of reaction.
Epinephrine is an amino acid derived hormone.
Pepsin is the most abundant organic compound on the Earth.
40. 40.Which of the following is not included in the Sustainable Development Goals ?
41. Which of the following statements about Dr. Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai is/are correct ?
Dr. Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 1966.
B.Dr. Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai was honoured with the Padma Vibhusan (posthumously) in 1972.
C.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited was founded by the honoured Dr. Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai in 1940. Choose the correct answer :
42. Arrange the following storage capacities in descending order: A. Exabyte B. Gigabyte
C. Kilobyte
D. Megabyte
E. Petabyte
F. Terabyte
43. Identify the correct statements from the following :
Ammonia is a colourless gas with pungent odour.
Produced by Haber-Bosch process
Ammonia production is endothermic
Urea is produced from ammonia and CO2
44. The correct order of the thermal conductivity of the materials is :
45. Match the respiratory surface adaptation with the organism : Respiratory Surface – Adaptation Organism
A. Tracheal System – I. Fish
B. Gills – II. Insects
C. Lungs – III. Terrestrial Mammals
D. Skin – IV. Earthworm
46. Health Anxiety is also known as_____?
47. Which of the following statements about pH are correct ? pH of a solution is equal to – log[H+].
pH is expressed on a scale of 0 to 14.
pH value less than 7 indicates that the given solution is alkaline.
The gastric juice produced in the stomach of the human body is acidic.
The normal pH of healthy human blood is around 6·5. Choose the correct answer :
48. Consider the following statements about human DNA:
Human DNA has two polynucleotides
Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T), whereas, Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C).
The G – C pair has two hydrogen bonds, whereas the A – T pair has three hydrogen bonds.
In humans,Each cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes
49. Eutrophication is a process in which a water body:
50. Consider the following statements about ozone:
Tropospheric ozone is a greenhouse gas
1987 Nobel Prize for ozone hole research
Ozone hole discovered over Antarctica
51. In ecology, HIPPO stands for :
52. Consider the following statements with regard to Black Carbon :
The main sources of Black Carbon (BC) are open biomass burning, residential burning of cooking and heating, and fossil fuel combustion in vehicles.
Burning in agricultural areas during dry seasons in developing countries results in release of considerable amount of Black Carbon each year. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
53. 53.According to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which of the following are the criteria for air pollutants ?
Particulate matter
CO (Carbon monoxide)
N2O (Nitrous oxide)
Ground level Ozone :
54. Arrange the environmental movements in India in chronological order :
55. Two statements are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Stratospheric ozone depletion is a concern due to increased UV radiation reaching Earth’s surface.
Reason (R) : Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere, which catalyses the breakdown of ozone molecules. Choose the most appropriate option from the following :
56. Arrange the following Environmental Conventions and Protocols in chronological order :
A. Kyoto Protocol
B. Paris Agreement
C. Montreal Protocol
D. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants :
57. Consider the following pairs : Ramsar Sites – State , A. Rudrasagar Lake : Uttarakhand
B. Nanda Lake : Goa
C. Ansupa Lake : Odisha
D. Sur Sarovar : Madhya Pradesh
E. Nal Sarovar : Gujarat Which of the above mentioned pairs are correctly matched ?
58. Which of the following mineral has not been identified as a critical mineral for India in 2023 by the Government of India ?
59. Which of the following Aluminium plants is/are correctly matched with their location ?
A. HINDALCO : Renukoot
B. BALCO : Korba
C. NALCO : Asansol
60. Consider the following statements regarding the black (regur) soils found in India :
Black soil is the 3rd largest soil group in India.
They got their parent material from Cambrian period lava.
They have high water retaining capacity.
They are deficient in Iron. Which of the above statements are correct ?
61. Consider the following statements related to the term “Kallakkadal”:
The phenomenon locally referred to as “Kallakkadal” in Kerala, is where the sea surges into the land, causing inundation of coastal areas.
These are flash flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds.
62. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The monsoon enters West Bengal and Bangladesh from the south-east instead of from the south- west direction.
Reason (R) : The Bay of Bengal branch of monsoon wind strikes the Arakan Hills along the coast of Myanmar. These Hills deflect major portion of the above said monsoon wind branch towards the Indian Subcontinent.
63. Consider the following statements in relation to Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
In India, Tropic of Cancer passes through the States of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
The Tropic of Capricorn passes through the country Bolivia.
The city Rio de Janeiro is one of the closest cities to the Tropic of Capricorn. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
64. Consider the following statements about textile industries
Bankura, which is in West Bengal, has a prominent silk textile industry.
Dewar, which is in Himachal Pradesh, has a prominent woollen textile industry. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
65. Consider the following pairs of conflict regions
Lachin Corridor : Armenia-Azerbaijan
Ilemi Triangle : South Sudan-Ethiopia
Essequibo : Venezuela-Guyana
Halayeb Triangle : Egypt-Libya. & Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched ?
66. Which of the following is the world’s biggest Permafrost Crater?
67. Consider the following statements as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook 2023
Telangana produced about 8% of the total rice produced in India according to the estimates for 2020 – 21.
The total area under paddy in 2015 – 16 was 25 lakh acres. By 2021 – 22, the area under paddy increased to 97 lakh acres. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
68. Consider the following statements about rainfall in Telangana State
South-West monsoon rainfall accounts for about 80% annual precipitation.
South-West monsoon arrives during June and lasts until September.
Tropical cyclones form in the Bay of Bengal, which, along with the North-East monsoons bring rains to South Telangana. Which of the above statements are correct ?
69. Consider the following pairs: Particularly Vulnerable – Tribal Groups
Asur : Tamil Nadu
Gutob Gadaba : Andhra Pradesh
Kolam : Maharashtra
Riang : Manipur Which of the above mentioned pairs are correctly matched ?
70. Consider the following statements as per the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India (Annual Report 2022 – 23) :
Rajasthan has the largest cumulative solar power installed capacity in the country as of December 2022.
Telangana has the 5th largest cumulative solar power installed capacity in the country as of December 2022. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
71. Following are the names of places/locations which were mentioned in the news during the 2020 – 2021 India-China standoff along LAC (Line of Actual Control) : Arrange the below places in sequential order from North to South :
Galwan Valley
Hot Springs
Depsang Plains
Pangong Tso North Bank.
72. Arrange the following islands of Japan in sequential order from North to South direction :
Shikoku
Hokkaido
Kyushu
Honshu
73. Consider the following statements :
In India the first Jute factory was established at Rishra.
Jute industry is mainly a raw material based industry. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
74. Consider the following statements related to Road Transportation (2021 – 22) in Telangana State as per the Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023 :
Telangana has a total road density of 97·49 km for 100 sq. km.
Among the districts, Hyderabad has the highest road density followed by Medchal-Malkajgiri and Ranga Reddy districts.
The total road network in the state including National Highways is 1,04,277 km. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
75. Consider the following statements about Isotherms showing horizontal distribution of World temperature :
Isotherms run in an East-West direction and are generally parallel to the latitudes.
Generally, isotherms are straight but they bend at the junction of continents and oceans due to differential heating and cooling of land and water.
Isotherms are more regular in the Northern hemisphere than in the Southern hemisphere. Which of the above statements are correct ?
76. Consider the following statements:
East Australian current is a warm ocean current located in the Pacific Ocean.
West Australian current is a cold ocean current of the Indian Ocean. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
77. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
78. Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for simultaneous Indian Civil Service Examination to be held in India.
The first such examination was held in Allahabad in 1922. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
79. Consider the following statements about social reformer Bal Gangadhar Shastri Jambhekar:
He started the first Anglo-Maratha newspaper – ‘Durpun’ and the first Marathi monthly magazine – ‘Digdurshun’.
He is also famous as the ‘Father of Marathi Journalism’. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
80. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?
81. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
82. Which among the following statements are correct?
Gwalior Gharana is known for Dhrupad and Khayal music.
Kashi Gharana is known for Tappa form of classical Hindustani music.
Lucknow Gharana is known for Khayal music.
Indore Gharana is known for Khayal music.
83. Which of the following pairs are not correctly related to each other?
Bharatanatyam : Carnatic Music
Sattriya : Ankiya Naat
Mohiniyattam : Kutiyattam
Kuchipudi : Kumil Choose the answer:
84. Arrange the following Satyagrahas chronologically as per the year of launching:
Munshigunj Kali Temple Satyagraha
Vaikom Satyagraha
Nasik Kalaram Temple Satyagraha
Guruvayur Temple Satyagraha
85. Which of the following statements is/are true?
The Deccani culture created by Qutub Shahis was an amalgamation of cultures of native Deccan, North Indian, Turkistan, Arabic and Persia.
The Qutub Shahi court consisted of foreign immigrants known as Habshis.
86. Which community was engaged in making slivers of cotton ready for spinning?
87. Which of the following texts provides the earliest reference to veedhi natakas?
88. Consider the following statements:
Perini is one of the dance forms classified under marga nritta/nritya.
It was performed during religious rituals.
It was developed by the lenkas and nayakas possessing martial skills.
Vira Saiva followers spread this dance form at Palampet, Hanumakonda and Warangal. Which of the above statements are correct?
89. Match the following temples with the places where they are located: Temple – Place
Nagaresvara Temple – I. Nandikandi
Erakesvara Temple – II. Vemulavada
Rameshvara Temple – III. Gangapuram
Chennakesava Swami Temple – IV. Pillalamarri
90. Chronologically arrange the following palaces according to the year of beginning of their construction: A. Malwala Palace
Hill Fort Palace
Falaknuma Palace
Asmangarh Palace
Paigah Palace
91. Bhaskara Ramayanam was a composite work written by five authors. Identify them.
92. Consider the following statements:
A fine Qutbshahi painting found in Diwan-i-Hafi belongs to Abul Hasan Tana Shah.
This book contains 15 pages of miniature paintings illustrating the portraits of Muhammad Shah. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
93. Match the following stages of value chains with the actions proposed in the Grassroots Innovation Framework of Telangana 2020–2025: Stages – Action
A. First – I. Helping the identified innovators to develop their prototype further for the proof of concept
B. Second – II. Reaching out to the rural citizenry
C. Third – III. Scale-up Fund to help grow grassroots innovations into micro and small scale industries
D. Fourth – IV. To scout for existing Grassroot Innovators and facilitate the creation of new Grassroot Innovators
94. Which of the following policies of Telangana aims at making Hyderabad the most favoured destination for investment in animation, visual effects, gaming and comics sector?
95. Match the following relating to the universities in Telangana: University – Named After
A. Agriculture university – I. P.V. Narasimha Rao
B. Health university – II. Konda Laxman
C. Horticulture university – III. Kaloji Narayan Rao
IV. Prof. Jayashankar
96. Minimum Inspection and Maximum Facilitation’ is the objective of the following policy of the Government of Telangana:
97. Match the following Labour Codes formulated by Government of India with the Number of Laws amalgamated in it: Labour Code – Number of Laws
A. The Code on Wages, 2019 – I. 3
B. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 – II. 4
C. The Code on Social Security, 2020 – III. 13
D. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 – IV. 9 V. 8
98. Arrange the following Policy Initiatives in India in chronological order based on their year of launching:
Rajiv Awas Yojana
Indira Awas Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Housing for All
National Slum Development Programme
99. Arrange the following Committees/Commissions for Scheduled Tribes in the chronological order based on the year of their formation:
Dhebar Commission
S.C. Dube Committee
Bhuria Committee
Verrier Elwin Committee
100. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to NITI Aayog’s claims in its discussion paper ‘Multidimensional Poverty in India (MPI) since 2005 – 06’?
Approximately 25 crore Indians escaped Multidimensional Poverty between 2013 – 14 and 2022 – 23.
It claims that based on the interpolation of the MPI estimates between 2005 – 06 and 2015 – 16, the head count ratio for the year 2013 – 14 was calculated as 29.17%.
Gujarat recorded the largest decline in the number of Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) Poor between 2013 – 14 and 2022 – 23.
101. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to ‘The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007’?
Maintenance of parents/senior citizens by children/relatives is made obligatory and justiciable through tribunals.
As per the Act, senior citizen means any person being a citizen of India who has attained the age of 60 years or above.
As per the Act, the State Government shall designate the District Collector as maintenance officer.
102. Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to the disabilities specified in the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016?
Dwarfism and cerebral palsy are part of physical disability under this Act.
Acid attack victims are considered as persons with disabilities under this Act.
103. A statement followed by three assumptions are given below. Identify which of them are implicit in the statement. Statement : In an appointment order from a company the following is mentioned : ‘‘Your appointment in this job will be made regular after one year, if your performance appraisal by your supervisor is positive.’’
I.The job will not be made permanent before one year.
II.The suitability of the candidate is not known at the time of appointment.
III.Temporary jobs need not require any performance appraisal.
104. A statement followed by three conclusions are given below. Decide which of the conclusion(s) follow(s) from the statement. Statement : P, Q, R are three women and L, M, N are the husbands of P, Q, R not necessarily in the same order.
X : P is not the wife of M. R is not the wife of L.
Y : P is not the wife of N. Q is the wife of M.
Z : Q is the wife of N. R is not the wife of N.
105. A statement followed by two courses of action is given below. Identify which of the course(s) of action to follow to address the issue in the statement. Statement : Our manufacturers are facing very tough competition to sell their products in international markets.
I.Government should give attractive incentives to the manufacturers in lowering costs of production, to produce quality products and to reduce prices.
II.Government should devise innovative policies, which include tax cuts, to support industrialists.
106. 106.A statement followed by three arguments is given below. Identify which of the argument(s) is/are strong to support the statement. Statement : Should the admissions to the professional courses be allowed not through ranks in admission tests but by the marks obtained in qualifying examinations?
I.Yes. It is beneficial to the students who cannot bear the fee for admission tests.
II.Yes. Many students who get good marks in qualifying examinations are not getting through the admission tests.
III.No. The qualifying examinations conducted by several Universities or Boards do not have common standard in conducting exams and evaluation procedures.
107. Two statements are given below. With reference to cause-effect relationship, how are these two statements related?
Statement I : From the last one year, the sales of newly constructed flats has decreased substantially.
Statement II : Customers are not paying house loan Equated Monthly Instalments (EMI) to banks regularly from the last few months.
108. Three statements followed by two conclusions are given in the question. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) the statements :
Statement : No bus is a car. All cars are scooters. Some scooters are cycles.
Conclusion I : Some cycles are definitely cars.
Conclusion II : No car is a cycle.
109. Five men A, B, C, D and E (not necessarily in the same order) are sitting in a row opposite to five women P, Q, R, S, T who are sitting in a row facing North, not necessarily in the same order. The woman opposite to C is to the immediate right of T. P is second to the left of S. D is opposite to P. B is not opposite to S and T. Q is opposite to the man who is to the immediate left of D. E is at the left end of the men’s row. The persons opposite to C and Q are respectively:
The woman opposite to C is to the immediate right of T. P is second to the left of S. D is opposite to P. B is not opposite to S and T. Q is opposite to the man who is to the immediate left of D.
E is at the left end of the men’s row.
110. If the second letter ‘E’ and the fourth letter ‘E’ from the left in the word NECESSARY were interchanged, also if sixth and eight letters and the third and seventh letters were interchanged, then in the newly formed word which of the following would be the third letter to the right of the letter which is second to the left of R ?
111. There is a group of five boys. Kishore is second tallest in height but younger than Rajiv. Prakash is taller than Manish but younger in age. Rajiv and Manish are of the same age but Rajiv is the tallest among all five. Nishant is taller than Prakash and elder to Rajiv. If these five boys are made to stand in a row in increasing order of their heights, then in which position does the eldest boy stand?
112. Consider the following statements: (i) N is the grand-daughter of Y and W is the sister-in-law of G. (ii) U is the father of E and U has no daughters. (iii) D has no sisters and B is the daughter of the brother of D. (iv) F is the son of H and H is the spouse of I. (v) N is the daughter of E and D is the only brother of E. (vi) H is the mother of G and E is the spouse of G. How is the father of G related to W?
113. Five people A, B, C, D and E join for a party. A introduces E to his daughter B as the wife of the father of his wife, and D is grandson of C. Then how is A related to D if one of these five is the spouse of A?
114. Suppose that A * B means A is to the South of B, A + B means A is to the North of B, A % B means A is to the East of B, and A – B means A is to the West of B. If P is exactly in the middle of S and T; Q is equidistant from P and R; P is equidistant from Q and S, then given the statement P – Q * R % S + T, the direction of Q from T is :
115. (A, B, L, ) represents that L is the distance (in km) from A to B in the direction . Given that (A, B, 5, East), (B, C, 4, South), (D, E, 8, North), (E, F, 3, West), (F, G, 4, North), (G, H, 8, West), (C, D, 3, East). Then, (B, H, L, ) =
116. Replace the misfit number in the following series with a suitable number from the options: 1, 6, 13, 22, 37, 54, 73
117. If ‘bee pee see’ means ‘cook good food’; ‘ree mee see’ means ‘food is tasty’ and ‘mee nee bee’ means ‘tea is good’, then which words in that language mean ‘cook tasty tea’?
118. In a code language FORMAT is coded as 123456; MATINY is coded as 456789; PRAJAY is coded as #35$59 and BRAIN is coded as %3578. Each vowel in the word AFFIRMATION is replaced by the next letter and keeping the consonants in the word fixed, then a new word is formed. Then the code of this new word thus obtained in the given coded language is:
119. Letters of English alphabet from A to Z are successively represented by the numbers 26 to 1. By using the above rule, if the word ‘CAT’ is coded as 57, then codes of the two words ‘SUSPECT’ and ‘OBVIOUS’ are respectively :
120. There are 216 cubes each of side 1 unit. Except 3 adjacent faces, all other 3 faces of each cube are painted with red colour. These cubes are joined together to form a big cube of side 6 units such that a border of 1 unit width around each face has to be with no red colour. All the other parts of each face should be in red colour. Then the number of cubes that are not a part of the border of each of the faces is:
121. If the following figure is folded to form a cube, which of the following options represents this cube ?
122. A and B are parents of C and A is elder than B. The father A’s age is not more than 4 times that of C’s age and the mother B’s age is not less than 3 times the age of C. If C’s age is not less than 7 years and not more than 10 years, then the maximum possible age difference between A and B is :
123. A student found the 1357th day from 1st March, 1998 as Friday. Then the immediate date after 1st March, 1998 which falls on Thursday is :
124. A watch loses 2 minutes for every 12 hours. The watch is set to the right time at 11 a.m. on Monday. At the time 11 p.m. on the immediate coming Friday, the faulty watch shows the time :
125. In which of the following years does 29th February fall on a Saturday?
126. 47·5 is the angle between the hands of a clock at 3 hrs k min, and the hands of the clock coincide with each other at 3 hrs l min. If k > l, then k + l =
127. The ratio of production to sales from 2020 to 2023 is given. If the average production in these four years is x and the average sales in these four years is y, then x : y =?
128. Match the difference in number of boys and girls from the given data.
The difference between the number of boys and the number of girls in the School C is – I. 1340
The number of boys in School B is less than the number of students in School E by – II. 380
The difference between the number of girls in school D and the number of boys in school F is – III. 40
The difference between the number of girls in school F and the number of girls in school A is – IV. 60 & V. 240
129. Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks in the following sentences. ‘Could you pass me____ piece of cloth ? I’ve spilt some milk on______ floor.’
130. Fill in the blanks with articles in the following sentence. Choose the correct alternative from the options given below. ‘I went to ____ prison____ lot when I was____ student of social work at ____ Manchester University.’
131. Which of the following sentences have incorrect use of prepositions ?
I ordered for ten books.
A national leader should communicate to his people effectively in the meeting.
My friends after their tour will return in this month.
They agreed with the project but disagreed with us. Choose the answer :
132. Choose the correct sequence of prepositions to be filled in the blanks in the following sentences to make them meaningful.
Could you hand these cookies ___ with tea to the people in this meeting ?
Since she had broken the rules of the contest, Susheela had to hand____ the prize.
Please hand your passport______ at the office, it will be returned to you later.
The papers are signed by an official before being handed _____ to the next department
133. Fill in the blanks with suitable form of words from the options given below. Next to him in ____ came a vendor of fried groundnuts, who gave his ware a fancy name each day, and people____ to him. A ______ portion of this______ before the astrologer too.
134. The following three sentences have an underlined word each. Identify the word from the given options that is a synonym of all the three underlined words.
The public seems to have an insatiable appetite for celebrity news.
Raj has had enough of his sister’s materialistic requirements.
A dragonfly and its larva are both voracious eaters of their fellow creatures.
135. Identify the correct mapping of the underlined word in the following sentences with its antonym. A. The verbose explanation given by the lawyer was quite difficult to be understood by a lay-person. – I. Fallible
B. Their method of functioning was extremely impeccable. – II. Self-centred
C. This city’s pollution problem was alleviated by the sudden shower. – III. Unpoised
D. The CEO of the company was an even-tempered person. – IV. Succinct
E. The child’s altruistic act surprised all. – V. Intensified
136. Which of the following sentences is/are grammatically correct with reference to tense ?
If you were an avid reader, you will take special interest in this project.
If he is a voracious reader of historical novels, he will read a lot of them eagerly and quickly.
Had he had a prodigious memory, he can have impressed everyone.
If she works hard, she will enjoy the fruits later. Choose the correct answer:
137. Fill in the blanks with suitable form of the verb from the options given below. ‘The girl_____ coins from her piggy bank for quite some time before she______ of buying a toy for herself.
138. Which of the following sentences has/have subject in agreement with verb ?
Mr. Atanu’s computer, as well as its programs, are out of date.
Many of us make New Year’s resolutions, but few of us keep them.
Everybody talk about the weather, but nobody does anything about it.
Neither Bheem nor his friends helps the villagers when they were in trouble. :
139. Which of the following sentences has an appropriate subject-verb agreement ?
140. Which of the following sentences has an incorrect passive form/voice ?
141. Choose the correct alternative that transforms the following sentence into reported speech. “We won’t eat it now, but we may have it for lunch tomorrow,” said Sudesh. Sudesh said that ________
142. Read the following passage carefully and choose the appropriate adjectives from the given choices to fill in the blanks. One of the not so_____ debates in modern society is ‘whether I create my destiny or my destiny creates me’. Many people believe that life moves according to a_____ plan as all of us are regulated, governed, and controlled by some____ power and authority that guides our______ course of life.
143. Read the following sentences carefully and identify the sentence(s) that has/have incorrect use of adverb(s).
John works very hard, seven days a week.
Tom drove careful along the narrow road.
Sita spoke extremely well.
We didn’t go out because it was raining heavily. Choose the answer :
144. Match the type of conjunction with the sentence in which it is used and identify the correct mapping. Conjunction Sentence A. Addition I. Various writers have examined the issue, for instance, Van Exel (2000).
B. Result II. Although the concept is easy, it was difficult to answer the question.
C. Reason III. Furthermore, child mortality rates must be examined.
D. Example IV. Prices are rising worldwide, thus encouraging investment.
E. Opposition V. Owing to the strike, today’s classes are cancelled. choose the correct answer:
145. Five sentences are given which are marked P, Q, R, S and T. Identify the correct sequence of the following jumbled sentences to form a meaningful paragraph. P.As with any type of service we intend to hire or outsource (IT-related or otherwise), it is commonly understood that we will be confronted with a marketplace comprised of service providers of varying quality and reliability.
Others yet may simply be insincere or temporary business ventures that unexpectedly disappear or are acquired within a short period of time.
Some may offer attractive rates and terms, but may have unproven business histories or highly proprietary environments.
Cloud computing is, at its essence, a form of service provisioning.
T.Others may have a solid business background, but may demand higher rates and less flexible terms. choose the correct answer :
146. Choose the correct mapping of the following jumbled sentences to make a meaningful paragraph. A.As an undergraduate Kamen developed the first pump that would give regular doses of medicine to patients.
He flies to work by helicopter, which he also uses for visiting his island off the coast of Connecticut.
The patent for this and other medical inventions has produced a huge income, allowing him to run his own research company which, among many other projects, has produced the iBot, the world’s first wheelchair which can climb stairs.
Dean Kamen is a 50-year-old American eccentric who is also a multi-millionaire.
He always wears blue denim shirts and jeans, even when visiting his friend, the President, in the White House. :
147. Choose the correct order of jumbled sentences, which are marked P, Q, R, S, T from the options given below to make it a meaningful paragraph. Sentence No. S1 and No. S7 are given to you as the introductory and concluding sentences of the paragraph. S1. We need to learn from nature. P.When you don’t know your limitations, you go out and surprise yourself.
Q.But the bumblebee doesn’t know that and it keeps flying.
R.The only limitations a person has are those that are self-imposed. S.In hindsight, you wonder if you had any limitations to begin with.
T.According to scientists, the bumblebee’s body is too heavy and its wingspan too small for it to be able to fly.
S7. Don’t let education put limitations on you. :
148. Fill in the blanks: ‘I usually spent three to four nights __________ from home, and then worked every weekend __________ numbers, plotting graphs, writing presentations. I was __________ all the time; it was an intellectual and a physical low.’
149. Fill in the blanks: ‘India and China held another round of diplomatic talks to complete the disengagement process in Eastern Ladakh and in the __________ of any breakthrough, __________ to maintain regular contact __________ diplomatic and military channels __________ border peace.’
150. Fill in the blanks: ‘Several X Bank customers have reported either attempted or successful __________ transactions with international merchants __________ the last few years. The Bank said that the transactions __________ to be a “BIN attack”. The Bank said there was no __________ of any breach and as the frauds were undertaken with basic card information, the debited amounts were recoverable.’
Here is the link for Group 2 Paper 2 Mock Test – TSPSC Group2 Paper 2 Question Paper with Key
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