TSPSC Group 2 paper 3 2024 Mock Test
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to the infant and neonatal mortality rates in India as per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)– 5 (2019–21) ?
Infant mortality rate (IMR) decreased when compared to National Family Health Survey (NFHS) – 4 (2015–16).
Neonatal mortality rate (NNMR) decreased when compared to NFHS – 4 (2015–16).
2. Which of the following statements are true in relation to India’s population ?
Sex ratio of population is expressed as number of females per 1000 males.
If sex ratio of population is more than thousand, it is called unfavourable sex ratio.
The sex ratio of population in India in 2011 was less than 1000.
3. In which of the following years was the National Population Policy announced in India ?
4. The total fertility rate (TFR) in India during 2015–16 as per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)– 4 was nearly :
5. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to crude death rate (CDR) of India’s population ?
During 2014–19, the crude death rate was less than 7.
During 2006–11, the crude death rate was more than 7.
6. The rate of natural population growth in India had been steadily declining since the early 1980s, despite an increase in absolute number of population, owing to :
7. Which of the following schemes are implemented in India to reduce population growth ?
Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) scheme
Scheme for provision of Pregnancy Testing Kits
Mission Parivar Vikas
Clinical Outreach Teams (COT) scheme
8. Arrange the following states in descending order based on their population in 2011 (as per Census 2011) :
Bihar
Tamil Nadu
Maharashtra
Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka
9. Match the following demographic indicators of India with their rates :
A. Infant Mortality Rate in 2020 – I. 23·7
B. Birth Rate in 2020 – II. 6·0
C. Death Rate in 2020 – III. 28·0
IV. 19·5
10. As per 2011 population census, match the following states with their respective population :
A. Nagaland – I. 30
B. Arunachal Pradesh – II. 11
C.Mizoram – III. 20
D. Meghalaya – IV. 14
11. In the national income accounting concepts, any excess of tax revenue over government spending is called:
12. Which of the following is not a component of total demand for domestic income/output?
13. What is the term used in national income accounting when depreciation charges are deducted from a country’s Gross Domestic Product?
14. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the concepts of personal and disposable incomes?
15. Who were the chairman and members of the National Income Committee set up in 1949 by the Government of India?
16. Which of the following statements are true in relation to national income in India?
The first official estimates of national income were prepared by the Ministry of Statistics, Programme Implementation.
The first official estimates of national income were prepared with base year 1948–49 at constant prices.
The estimates of national income published in 1956 were known as the conventional series.
National income under the title conventional series was published till 1976.
17. Arrange the following years in ascending order based on the share of agriculture and allied sectors in gross value added (at current prices) in each year:
2020–21
2021–22
2022–23
18. Arrange the following states in descending order based on per capita net state domestic product of these states (in rupees at current prices 2011–12 series) in the year 2020–21:
Maharashtra
Gujarat
Telangana
Andhra Pradesh
19. Match the following List-I with List-II:
A. Gross National Product at market prices – I. Net Domestic Product at market prices + Depreciation
B. Net National Product at market prices. – II. Gross Domestic Product at market prices – Depreciation
C. Gross Domestic Product at market prices. – III. Net National Product at factor cost + Indirect taxes – Subsidies
IV. Net National Product at market prices + Depreciation
20. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to national income?
National income calculated with a base year is known as national income at constant prices.
National income estimated at current prices is not inclusive of price changes.
During war period, national income is estimated at future prices also.
National income divided by total population gives personal income.
21. Which of the following is not the primary goal of the Indian Government’s Minimum Support Price Policy, which has been fixed at an incentive level?
22. As per the final estimates of production of major crops during 2022–23 in India, arrange the following crops in descending order based on estimated production:
Pulses
Oil Seeds
Maize
Coarse Serals
23. In India, the total foodgrains production (in lakh metric tonnes) in 2023–24 (second advance estimates) in kharif season was estimated at about:
24. Which of the following statements are true in connection with the production of crops in India in 2021–22 (Fourth Advance Estimates)?
Telangana was the third largest producer of cotton in India in 2021–22.
Uttar Pradesh was the largest producer of total foodgrains in India in 2021–22.
Telangana was the largest producer of maize in India in 2021–22.
Madhya Pradesh was the second largest producer of wheat in India in 2021–22.
25. Which of the following statements related to agricultural marketing in India are true?
Electronic-National Agricultural Marketing (e-NAM) was launched in 2016.
A Central sector scheme named ‘Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Producer Organizations’ was launched in 2023.
To address the issue of transportation of agricultural produce of farmers, Government of India launched Kisan Rath Mobile App
Through the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund, the Central Government is providing medium term loans only, for post-harvest market infrastructure.
26. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the agriculture sector in India?
For 2022–23, the Central Government fixed the agricultural sector credit target at around < 18·5 lakh crore.
Central Government launched income support scheme for farmers through Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi in 2021.
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched by the Central Government to address the problems of high premium rates of insurance for agricultural workers.
In 2023–24 Union Budget, around < 2 lakh crore was allocated to the agriculture sector.
27. Which of the following statements are true in relation to irrigation schemes in India?
With an aim to enhance physical access of water on farms and expand cultivable area under assured irrigation, the Central Government launched Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana scheme (PMKSY).
Har Khet Ko Pani is a major component of PMKSY.
Surface Minor Irrigation scheme is a sub-component of Har Khet Ko Pani.
PMKSY was launched by the Central Government during 2013–14.
28. Arrange the following crops in ascending order based on the minimum support prices (in ₹ per quintal) of these crops for kharif marketing season 2023–24:
Jowar – hybrid
Paddy – common
Maize
Ragi
29. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to agriculture labour in India (as per the Annual Periodic Labour Force Survey Report 2021–22)?
Percentage of male workers in agriculture sector was less than the percentage of female agriculture workers.
Around 70% of total agriculture workers were female.
30. Which of the following statements related to ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ is/are true?
There is seamless access to rations across India after its launch.
Central Government launched the scheme in the year 2016.
31. Which of the following are the pillars of India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023 ?
Ease of doing business
Emerging areas
Export promotion through collaboration
Import substitution & E. Incentive to remission
32. In India, the Index of Industrial Production is constructed on :
33. Which of the following is true in relation to National Renewal Fund (NRF) ?
34. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the services sector in India as per ‘Economy Survey 2021 – 22’ ?
Majority of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) was contributed by the services sector in 2019 – 20.
Hotels and tourism are a part of the services sector.
Defence and public administration are not a part of the services sector.
35. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to digital services in India ?
Jeevan Pramaan is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners.
The Digital India Programme was launched in 2019.
36. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the industrial policy resolutions in India ?
In India, the First Industrial Policy Resolution was announced in 1948.
In 1948 Industrial Policy Resolution, it was stated that arms and ammunition, atomic energy and railway transport would be the monopoly of the Central Government.
Another industrial policy resolution was announced in 1956.
In the Second Industrial Policy Resolution, all industries have been classified under five categories.
37. Which of the following statements are true in relation to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India ?
Udyam Portal was launched by the Central Government for registration of MSMEs.
Samadhaan Portal was launched by the Central Government for filing of grievances by MSMEs.
Central Government created a sub-portal within Samadhaan Portal for reporting the dues and monthly payments to MSMEs.
With the help of Udyam Portal, in 2021–22, more than 60 lakh MSMEs registere
38. Arrange the following development finance institutions on the basis of their year of establishment :
Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
Industrial Investment Bank of India (IIBI)
Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
39. Match the following mega clusters with the place of their location :
A. Jewellery cluster – I.Mumbai
B. Handloom cluster – II.Varanasi
C. Leather cluster – III.Chennai
D. Powerloom cluster – IV. Bhiwandi
40. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : The liberalisation of the Indian economy in 1991 unleashed competitive markets.
Reason (R) : Compulsory licensing for the production of certain security and strategic related commodities was one of the salient features of 1991 Industrial Policy Resolution.
41. Match the following five year plans of India with their objectives/focus: Five Year Plan – Objective/Focus
A. Eleventh Plan I. Agriculture
B. Ninth Plan II. Faster and more inclusive growth
C. Fifth Plan III. Growth with social justice and equality
Second Plan IV. Rapid industrialisation & V. Removal of poverty
42. Which of the following statements are true in relation to five year plans of India?
First Five Year Plan was launched in 1951.
First Five Year Plan was a successful plan.
The Third Five Year Plan was a total failure in reaching the targets laid down at the beginning of the Plan.
Annual plans were implemented for the period 1965 – 1969.
43. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to five year plans in India?
For the period 1978–82, Rolling Plan was implemente
The final draft of Fifth Five Year Plan was prepared by Prof. K.N. Raj.
44. Which of the following statements are true in relation to NITI Aayog?
It was set up in 2015.
Prime Minister of India acts as the Chairman of NITI Aayog.
It serves as a think tank of the government.
NITI Aayog aims to foster co-operative socialism among the states.
45. Match the following pillars of NITI Aayog with their relation: Pillar name – Relation
A. Pro-people I. Involvement of Citizenry
B. Transparency II. Women in all aspects
C. Equality III. Opportunity for the youth
D. Participation IV. Fulfilling societal and individual aspirations & V. Responsive government
46. Arrange the following deficits as % of GDP related to Union Budget 2022–23 (Budget estimates) in descending order:
Revenue deficit
Fiscal deficit
Primary deficit
Effective revenue deficit
47. Which of the following is not a priority of 2023–24 Union Budget?
48. Which of the following statements are not true in relation to Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act?
The Act became effective from 5th July, 2004.
This Act was notified by the government in 2002.
This Act stipulated the elimination of revenue deficit by 2014.
As per this Act, with the beginning of financial year 2006–07, the annual reduction in fiscal deficit must be at least 0.5%.
49. Which of the following statements are true in relation to 15th Finance Commission?
For horizontal devolution, income distance criterion was given more than 40% weightage.
For horizontal devolution, tax and fiscal efforts were given less than 3% weightage.
Rangarajan was the Chairman of this Commission.
The recommendations of this Commission are applicable from 2022 to 2028.
50. Arrange the following taxes in ascending order based on own tax revenue composition of India General States Average (2018–21 average):
State goods and services tax (SGST)
State excise
Sales tax
Motor vehicle tax
51. Based on per capita district domestic product (at constant 2004–05 prices) for the year 2012–13, which of the following districts in Telangana was identified as one of the poorest districts ?
52. The Human Development Index (HDI) value and rank of Telangana among the states in India in 2011–12 were respectively :
53. On the recommendation of which of the following was the Linguistic Provinces Commission (known as ‘Dar Commission’) appointed ?
54. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to per capita income of Telangana ?
The per capita income of Telangana at current prices has shown an increasing trend during the period 2004–05 to 2013–14.
The per capita income of Telangana at constant prices (2004–05 prices) in 2013–14 was more than fifty-five thousand rupees.
55. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Telangana economy ?
For the year 2013–14, the growth rate of gross state domestic product (GSDP) at constant (2004–05) prices was around 5·55% (provisional estimates).
For the year 2013–14 (provisional estimates), services sector registered more than 7% growth rate.
56. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the structural composition of gross state domestic product (GSDP) (at constant prices) of Telangana prior to its formation as Telangana state ?
In the year 2000–01, the share of agriculture sector was less than 20 percent of GSDP.
In the year 2008–09, the share of agriculture in GSDP was less than 15%.
In 2003–04, the share of industrial sector in GSDP was more than 25%.
During 2002–03 to 2009–10, the services sector share in GSDP was more than 50%. :
57. Which of the following statements are true in relation to marginal holdings in Telangana for the year 2010–11 ?
In Adilabad district, marginal holdings accounted for around 50% of total holdings.
The proportion of marginal holdings in total holdings in Medak district was around 60%.
With respect to more than half of the districts (excluding Hyderabad), the marginal holdings constituted more than 50% of total holdings.
For Telangana as a whole, marginal holdings accounted for more than 60% of total holdings. :
58. Arrange the following in ascending order based on the area under use as percentage of total geographical area of Telangana in 2013–14 :
Forest land
Land put to non-agricultural uses
Barren and uncultivable land
Current fallow land
59. Match the following classes of land with the extent of standard holding in Telangana as per Telangana Land Reforms (Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings) Act, 1973 :
A. Double crop wet land (Class-A) I. 20
B. Wet land other than double crop (Class-C) II. 40
C. Wet land other than double crop (Class-H) III. 10
D. Double crop wet land (Class-D) IV. 15
60. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Vasishta Bhargava Committee was appointed to look into the spending of surplus funds in accordance with the agreements between the representatives of Andhra and Telangana regions. Reason
(R) : Kumar Lalit Committee was appointed to assess the Telangana surplus funds.
:
61. As per Census 2011, in which of the following districts in Telangana was the population sex ratio more in rural areas than in urban areas?
62. As per National Family Health Survey–5, the percentage of women (between the age 15–49 years) who were literate in 2019–20 in Telangana was around:
63. As per National Family Health Survey–5, the Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR) in urban areas in Telangana was:
64. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the population of Telangana state as per the National Family Health Survey–4?
Population above 15 years of age was around two-third of the total population of Telangana state.
Population below 15 years of age was nearly one-fourth of the total population of Telangana state.
65. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the population of Telangana state?
As per the Telangana State Statistical Abstract–2022, the population of Telangana in the year 2031 would be more than five crores.
As per the population census 2011, during 2001–2011, the absolute increase in Telangana state’s population was less than fifty lakhs.
:
66. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the age structure of the total population of Telangana (as per the Telangana State Statistical Abstract – 2022?
The population in the age group of 10 – 14 years was around 28·3 lakhs in the year 2021.
The population in the age group of 20 – 24 years in the year 2026 would be around 25·4 lakhs.
The population in the age group of 40 – 44 years in the year 2031 would be around 32·61 lakhs.
The population in the age group of 55 – 59 years in the year 2036 would be 27·8 lakhs. :
67. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the male and female population of Telangana (as per the Telangana State Statistical Abstract – 2022?
In the year 2016, the male population in the age group of 30 – 34 years was less than the female population in the age group of 30 – 34 years.
In the year 2021, the male population in the age group of 80+ years was less than the female population in the age group of 80+ years.
In the year 2031, the female population in the age group of 65 – 69 years would be more than the male population in the age group of 65 – 69 years.
By the year 2036, the sex ratio of children (0 – 4 years) would be favourable. :
68. Arrange the following decades in ascending order based on decadal growth rate (%) of the population of Telangana:
2001 – 2011
1991 – 2001
1981 – 1991
1971 – 1981
69. Match the following health indicators with the value of each indicator in 2019–20 in relation to Telangana (as per Healthy States, Progressive India, Report on the Ranks of States and Union Territories, Health Index Round–IV, 2019–20, prepared by the NITI Aayog) ::
A.Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) – I. 96·3
B. Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR) – II. 63·0
C. Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) – III. 47·4
D. Institutional deliveries (%) – IV. 30·0 & V. 19·0
70. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) in relation to Telangana’s Overall Performance – Composite Index Score (as per Healthy States, Progressive India, Health Index Round-IV, 2019–20, prepared by the NITI Aayog ) :
Assertion (A) : By 2019–20, Telangana had improved its rank among larger states in relation to overall performance Composite Index Score compared with its overall performance Composite Index Score in 2018–19.
Reason (R) : In 2019–20, the overall performance Composite Index Score of Telangana was around 70.
71. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Rythu Bima scheme that was introduced in 2018 by the Telangana Government ?
The age group of farmers eligible to enrol under the scheme is 21 years and above.
The insured amount is < 5 lakhs.
The scheme is applicable to the farmers who have up to 10 acres of agricultural lan
72. In which of the following Telangana districts was the Crop Diversification Index Value more in 2021–22 (as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023) ?
73. In which of the following districts was the total area cultivated under paddy crop in Telangana in 2021–22 the highest ?
74. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the agriculture and allied sectors in Telangana (Telangana Economy, Government of Telangana, Provisional Estimates 2023) ?
Between 2021–22 and 2022–23, the agriculture and allied sectors achieved more than fifteen percent year-on-year growth rate in their gross state value added (at current prices).
The gross state value added (at current prices) growth rate of agriculture and allied sectors was around 18% in 2021–22.
75. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Rythu Bandhu scheme in Telangana ?
Rythu Bandhu (Investment Support) scheme was launched in the year 2019.
Under this scheme, initially an amount of < 12,000 per acre, per year was given to owners of lands.
76. As per the All India Report on Agricultural Census 2015–16, which of the following statements are true in relation to irrigated area in 2015–16 in Telangana ?
The gross irrigated area was around 19·59 lakh hectares.
The gross unirrigated area was more than the gross irrigated are
The net irrigated area was more than 75% of the gross irrigated are
The net irrigated area was more than the gross unirrigated are
77. Which of the following statements related to area under different crops as percentage of gross sown area (in Vanakalam 2021–22) in Telangana (as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook–2023) are true ?
The area under paddy was more than 40%.
The area under cotton was more than 30%.
The area under maize was more than 8%.
The area under soyabean was less than 3%.
78. Arrange the following years in ascending order based on the contribution of agriculture sector (as percentage) to gross state value added (GSVA) of Telangana at current prices in each of the given years, as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023 :
2019–20 (Second Revised Estimate)
2020–21 (First Revised Estimate)
2021–22 (Provisional Estimate)
2022–23 (Provisional Advance Estimate)
79. Which of the following pairs related to size class of land holdings (acres) and the percentage of each size class of land holding in total land holdings in Telangana in 2015–16 (as per the data provided in Telangana State Statistical Abstract – 2022), are correctly matched ?
A. Marginal holdings : Around 69%
B. Small holdings : Around 24%
C. Medium holdings : Around 7%
D. Large holdings : Less than 1%
80. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023) :
The total growth rate of gross state value added of agriculture sector in Telangana (at current prices) in 2022–23 (provisional advance estimate) was 16 percent.
The total growth rate of gross state value added of agriculture sector in Telangana (at current prices) in 2021–22 (provisional estimate) was more than 9 percent.
81. Arrange the following subsectors of service sector in ascending order on the basis of their contribution (%) to gross state value added (GSVA) in 2022–23 (provisional estimates) in Telangana as per Telangana Economy, Provisional Estimates, 2023 of Government of Telangana:
Financial services
Public administration
Real estate, ownership of dwelling and professional services
Trade, repairs, hotels and restaurants. & E. E.Transport, storage, communication and services related to broadcasting :
82. Which of the following are flagship projects of Telangana Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (TGIIC)?
Apparel Weaving Park at Sircilla
Sultanpur’s Medical Devices Park
Mega Food Park at Buggapadu
Industrial Park at Zaheerabad
83. As per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook–2023, of the total number of persons working in the industrial sector in 2020–21 in Telangana, the manufacturing sector has provided employment to around:
84. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the share (%) of secondary sector in gross state value added (GSVA) of Telangana (as per Telangana Economy, Provisional Estimates – 2023, Government of Telangana)?
The share of secondary sector in GSVA of Telangana was less than 20% (at current prices) in 2022–23 (provisional estimates).
The share of secondary sector in GSVA of Telangana (at current prices) in 2021–22 (first revised estimate) was less than its share in GSVA (at current prices) of Telangana in 2018–19.
85. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Information Technology / Information Technology Enabled Services (IT/ITES) initiatives of Telangana Government?
Through the growth in dispersion (GRID) policy, the government provides special incentives to the companies that expand or set up their units within the western part of Hyderaba
The Government of Telangana released its second Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Policy in 2021 to provide various incentives to IT/ITES industry.
–
86. Which of the following statements are true in relation to tourism circuits in Telangana?
Bogatha Waterfalls are a part of tribal circuit.
Akka Mahadevi Caves are a part of heritage circuit.
Somasila Reservoir is a part of eco-tourism circuit.
Mallur is a part of green tourism circuit.
87. Which of the following statements are true in relation to power sector in Telangana in 2021–22 (as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023)?
The installed capacity of power in Telangana was around eighteen thousand megawatt (MW).
In the total installed capacity of power, the thermal energy share was more than 50%.
The nuclear energy installed capacity accounts for about 1% of total installed capacity of power.
The per capita availability of power was more than three thousand kilowatt hours (kWh).
88. Arrange the following in chronological order based on year of launching/setting up of these schemes/academies in Telangana:
Amma Vodi Scheme
Scheme for Adolescent Girls
Tholi Mettu / First Step Scheme
Telangana Academy for Skill and Knowledge (TASK)
89. Arrange the following schemes implemented by the Telangana Government in chronological order as per their launching months and years:
Dharani Portal
Telangana Fiber Grid
TS-bPASS
Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Telangana Backward Classes Welfare Residential Educational Institutions Society
90. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to Telangana’s industry and service sectors in 2022–23 Provisional Estimates (as per Telangana Economy, Government of Telangana, Provisional Estimates, 2023)?
Industry and service sectors in Telangana together accounted for around 80% of gross state value added (at current prices).
Manufacturing (a sub-sector of industry) alone accounted for more than 10% of gross state value added (at current prices) in Telangan
91. As per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook–2023, Telangana’s own tax revenue as a percentage (2018–21 average) of its gross state domestic product (GSDP) was :
92. The total principal + interest burden (within budget) of Telangana state in 2014–15 was around (as per Telangana State Finances – White Paper, Finance Department, Government of Telangana) :
93. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the Aasara Pension Scheme of Telangana Government ?
94. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the composition of expenditure in Telangana for 2024–25 as per the vote on account budget of Telangana for 2024–25 ?
The estimated revenue expenditure is more than two lakh crore rupees.
The estimated capital expenditure is less than thirty thousand crore rupees.
95. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Mahalakshmi scheme in Telangana ?
This scheme was launched by the Telangana Government in January 2024.
Women can travel in all state-run buses at free of cost.
96. Which of the following statements are true in relation to public expenditure in Telangana (2018–21 average) as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023 ?
Development expenditure was 88% of total expenditure.
Non-development expenditure was around 22% of total expenditure.
Per capita development expenditure was less than thirty thousand crore rupees.
The revenue expenditure was more than 80% of total expenditure. :
97. Which of the following statements are not true in relation to tax to Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) ratio (% and 2018–21 average) in Telangana, as per Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023 ?
Sales tax revenue to GSDP ratio was more than 3%.
State excise revenue to GSDP ratio was less than 2%.
Motor vehicle tax revenue to GSDP ratio was more than 4%.
State goods and services tax (SGST) revenue to GSDP ratio was more than 6%. Choose the answer :
98. Which of the following state taxes is not subsumed in goods and services tax (GST) ?
99. Match the following sectors/departments with proposed expenditure to these sectors/departments in vote on account budget for the financial year 2024–25 of Telangana state (as per Telangana state vote on account budget for the financial year 2024–25) :
A. Information technology I. 40,080
B. Industries II. 19,746
C. Agriculture III. 774
D. Panchayat raj and rural development IV. 2,543
100. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Giri Vikasam scheme in Telangana is aimed at providing irrigation facilities to the fallow and uncultivable agricultural lands of small and marginal scheduled tribe farmers.
Reason (R) : Giri Poshana scheme in Telangana is aimed at addressing the needs of scheduled tribe farmers for sustainable agricultural development.
101. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Human Development Index (HDI) of India?
India’s HDI value decreased in 2022 after an increase in 2021.
India was placed at 134 in HDI rank out of 193 countries in 2022 as per 2023/24 Human Development Report (HDR).
102. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
India has the ‘demographic advantage’ to produce and supply educated and skilled manpower.
India has the largest scientific and technical manpower in the world in 2024.
103. Match the following phases of growth rates of India’s population with their respective periods:
A. High growth with definite signs of slowing down – I. 1901 – 1921
B. Rapid high growth – II. 1921 – 1951
C. Stagnant population – III. 1951 – 1981
D. Steady growth – IV. 1981 – 2011 :
104. Which of the following are key dimensions of Human Development Index?
Ability to lead a long and healthy life.
Ability to achieve a decent standard of living.
Ability to settle in high income areas such as urban centres.
Ability to acquire knowledge.
105. Which of the following human development composite indices is not included in the Human Development Report (HDR) 2023/2024 of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?
106. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to economic growth and development?
Economic growth and economic development are not considered as identical concepts any longer.
Economic development is the summation of economic growth and structural advancements.
107. Who among the following economists is involved in the construction of ‘Human Development Index’?
108. Which of the following social indicators for basic needs have been used by Hicks and Streeten for measuring economic development?
Education
Health
Sanitation
Electricity & E. Water supply
109. Which of the following two states were ranked at the top in terms of per capita net state domestic product in 2021–22 at current prices (with base year 2011–12)?
Sikkim
Delhi
Goa
Gujarat
110. Which of the following are the common characteristics of developing countries like India?
Low real per capita income
Scarcity of capital
Low incidence of poverty
High levels of unemployment
111. As per the New Labour Code, which of the following statements related to the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code 2020 is/are correct?
Under ‘One Nation – One Ration Card’, an inter-state migrant worker gets ration facility in the state he works and the remaining family members get ration facility in the state where they reside.
It is mandatory for the employers to provide annual health check-up of the workers.
112. Which of the following statements are correct as per the Human Development Report 2023–24 for the year 2022?
India ranks 108th position in gender inequality index.
In terms of gender inequality index, India lags behind Bhutan, South Africa and Chin
Female labour force participation rate in India remains lower than Nepal.
Reproductive health, empowerment and labour market are the three dimensions of gender inequality index.
113. Which of the following statements regarding the main objectives behind conducting Socio-Economic and Caste Census 2011 are correct?
To enable ranking of households based on their socio-economic status.
To make available authentic information on caste-wise population enumeration.
To make available authentic information regarding socio-economic condition and educational status of various castes and sections of population.
To make available authentic information on domestic workers.
114. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?
MDGs have 8 development goals.
MDGs consist of 40 indicators.
115. Arrange the following educational schemes of Indian Government in chronological order:
PM e-VIDYA
Skill India Mission
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
NIPUN Bharat Mission
116. In 2022–23 Union Budget, the proposed allocation for Housing for All under PM Awas Yojana was around:
117. Under the ‘Nai Roshni Scheme’, which of the following are covered in the training module?
Swachh Bharat
Life skills
Financial literacy
Old age pension & E. Health and hygiene
118. Which of the following statements about the United Nations Development Programme’s (UNDP’s) Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI’s) 2023 is/are correct?
It quantifies biases against women and transgender persons.
It captures people’s attitudes on women’s roles along four key dimensions: political, educational, economic and physical integrity.
119. As per National Family Health Survey-5 (2019–21), arrange the following states in descending order, in terms of neo-natal mortality rates:
Bihar
Jharkhand
Madhya Pradesh
Telangana
120. Which of the following concepts of unemployment are developed by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in India?
Usual status unemployment
Current monthly status unemployment
Current weekly status unemployment
Current daily status unemployment
121. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the Scheme for Providing Self- Employment to Educated Unemployed Youth (SEEUY)?
The scheme was originally introduced in Maharashtra as Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS).
It was introduced by the Government of India in 1986.
Its aim was to encourage the educated unemployed youth to undertake self-employment ventures in industry, service and business.
The educated youth should be in the age group of 18 – 35 years.
122. Poverty can be classified into the following:
Absolute poverty
Primary poverty
Relative poverty
Secondary poverty
123. Arrange the following schemes of Indian Government in chronological order on the basis of their launching:
Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP)
National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
PM Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi)
Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U)
124. Match the following Indian Government initiatives with their aims/objectives:
A. Mission Indradhanush – I. Assured minimum pension for senior citizens
B. eSanjeevani – II. Conservation of water for the future
C. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana – III. Universal immunization programme
D. Mission Amrit Sarovar – IV. Providing sustainable drinking water V. To enable patient-to-doctor teleconsultation
125. As per NITI Aayog’s report on ‘multidimensional poverty in India since 2005–2006’, which of the following states showed fastest decline in the number of multidimensional poor?
Uttar Pradesh
Rajasthan
Odisha
Madhya Pradesh
126. Which of the following are recognized as engines under PM Gati Shakti for economic growth and sustainable development?
Logistics infrastructure
Housing
Airports
Railways
127. Which of the following statements regarding Prime Minister Awas Yojana (PMAY)-Urban scheme are correct?
It is intended to provide housing for all in urban areas by 2025.
Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) is a sub-scheme under this scheme.
The scheme has made a mandatory provision for the female head of the family to be the owner or co-owner.
A and B only
128. Which of the following statements on Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (GKRA) are correct?
It was launched in 2021.
It aims to provide 125 days of employment.
It focuses on Gulf migrant workers only.
It was launched in Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh states in the country.
129. Which of the following statements with regard to Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is/are correct?
Human Development Report 2010 introduced this concept.
Education, health, communication and standard of living are its dimensions.
Neither A nor B
Both A and B
130. Under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA), which index is used for the revision of wage rates?
131. Which of the following are the salient features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) scheme of the Government of India?
No licence is required for exports.
Manufacturing activities are allowe
Licence is not necessary for imports.
SEZ units cannot give subcontracting. E.Service sector activities are allowe
132. According to the 2011 Census, the top three Indian metropolitan cities in terms of urban population are:
133. Who formulated the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007?
134. Based on the urbanization rate (%), as per Census 2011 data, arrange the following states in descending order:
Karnataka
Kerala
Maharashtra
Tamil Nadu & E.Punjab
135. According to Migration in India Report 2020–2021, which of the following statements is/are correct?
The All India migration rate was 28·9% for July 2020 – June 2021 with a 26·5% migration rate in rural areas and 34·9% in urban areas.
In rural India, when compared to women, men recorded a higher rate of migration.
136. From ‘World Inequality Report 2022’ for India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
The report presents that inequality of income in India has been increasing in the last few decades.
The report suggests that inequality of wealth in India has been decreasing in the last few decades.
137. Which of the following statements is/are true as per Article 300A of Constitution of India?
The government can impose ceiling on land holdings.
Right to property is only a legal right.
138. Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act was passed in the year:
139. Which of the following statements about the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 is/are correct?
The Act encompasses rights of self-cultivation and habitation.
The Act reduced the importance of Gram Sabh
140. Which of the following are the reasons or factors influencing rural to urban migration in India in general?
Climatic and meteorological disasters like floods and droughts often compelled the people to leave the villages.
Youth have shown a tendency to look for jobs in the cities.
Educated and technically skilled persons prefer to leave for cities for better opportunities.
Higher wages in urban areas attract people to migrate.
141. ‘Har Medh Par Ped’ scheme was launched in the year :
142. Which one of the following Acts related to environment was enacted in 1995?
143. In which year was the National Green Tribunal Act enacted?
144. Match the following Sustainable Development Goal numbers with their objectives:
1 I. End poverty everywhere
5 II. Ensuring affordable and clean energy to all
7 III. Reduce inequality within and among countries
10 IV. Gender equality and empowerment of women. & V. End hunger and malnutrition
145. Which of the following statements related to Chipko movement is/are true?
Chipko movement is aimed at protecting trees and forests.
This movement originated in the Himalayan region of India in 1973.
146. Which of the following statements is/are true?
National Mission for a Green India was launched in the year 2012.
National Bamboo Mission was launched in 2012.
147. Which of the following statements are true in relation to The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024?
This Act of Parliament received the assent of the President of India in February 2024.
This Act was enacted by the Parliament in the 76th year of the Republic of Indi
This Act applies, in the first instance, to Delhi and Telangana states only.
Any person who fails to pay the penalty imposed under the provisions of this Act within ninety days of such imposition shall be punishable.
148. As per Forest Survey of India, which of the following are classes of forest cover?
Very dense forest
Moderately dense forest
Open forest
Mangrove
149. Arrange the following Acts in chronological order:
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act
The Wild Life (Protection) Act
The Biological Diversity Act
The Environment (Protection) Act
150. Match the following conferences with the year in which the conferences were held:
A. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm – I. 1992
B. Earth Summit, Rio-de-Janeiro – II. 1972
C. World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg – III. 2015
D. United Nations Summit on Sustainable Development – IV. 2002 :
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