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TSPSC Group2 Paper 2 2024 Mock Test
1. Consider the following statements:
Level of planning and size of a settlement in Indus Valley Civilization is not strictly co-related. Bigger sites weren’t always better planned.
The relatively small site of Kalibangan shows higher level of planning than Lothal, which was double in size.
2. Which of the following statements regarding early Vedic culture are correct?
Polygamy was practised, but polyandry was not.
In Rigveda, there is little trace of the rigid restrictions typical of caste system.
‘Viṡ’ was a bigger socio-political structure than ‘Grāma’.
The foundation of socio-political structure in Rigvedic society was village.
3. Which of the following statements regarding Buddhist sects are correct?
Sthaviravada believed in the concept of Nirvana.
Sarvastivadins viewed constituents of phenomenon as not wholly momentary but existing forever in latent form.
Sammitiyas propagated the doctrine of soullessness.
Sautrantikas maintained that knowledge of outside world is only a feasible inference.
4. Match the following land types with their meaning:
A. Aprahata I. Desert
B. Shadvala II. Fallow
C. Sharkavati III. Fertile
D. Urvara IV. Grassy & V. Sandy
5. Which option of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order of the religious leaders?
6. Match the following kings in South India defeated by Samudra Gupta, as mentioned in Prayaga Prasasthi, with their kingdoms:
A. Mahendra I. Kottura
B. Vishnugopa II. Kosala
C. Hasthi Verma III. Kanchi
D. Svamidutta IV. Vengi
7. Consider the following statements:
Parantaka I took the title of Madurantaka and Maduraikonda.
Parantaka I defeated the combined armies of the Pandyas and the King of Sri Lanka in the Battle of Vellur.
Chola territorial expansion did not continue under Rajendra I, the son and successor of Raja Raja.
8. Match List I with List II:
A. Tools I. Paintings
B. Colours II. Seals
C. Indus III. Post Paleolithic
D. Bearded man IV. Steatite
9. Match the following:
Samaharta I. Collector of land revenue
Sannidhata II. Treasurer
Dharmasthiya III. Courts which decided personal disputes
Kantakasodhana IV. Courts which decided upon matters related to individuals and the state
10. Consider the following statements:
Harshavardhana wrote three plays named ‘Ratnavali’, ‘Priyadarshika’ and ‘Nagananda’.
‘Nagananda’ is about the Jain prince Jimūtavahana.
11. Which of the following statements about Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq are correct?
He continued Khilji’s policy of reducing the village headmen, namely ‘khuts’ and ‘muqaddams’ to ordinary cultivators.
He created a separate department called ‘diwan-i-amir-i-kohi’.
His agrarian reforms had a long-term impact, but failed disastrously during his reign.
He established new measurement of yard called ‘gazz-i-sikandari’.
12. Consider the following statements:
Alauddin Khilji had set up four markets at Delhi as part of market reforms.
Each market was under the control of a high officer called Shahna.
13. Which of the following statements are correct?
The Firdausi order was a branch of the Suhrawardi.
The Shattari order was an orthodox order.
The Qureshi order of Sufism flourished in the Deccan.
Chishti Sufis belonged to three different branches of the Chishti order – Nagauriya, Sabiriya and Nizamiya.
14. Which of the following statements are correct?
Ramananda belonged to Vaishnava Bhakti tradition.
Ramananda preached in the language of the common people.
Vallabhacharya was the founder of Pushtimarga.
Jayadeva’s Gita Govinda was composed in Hindi.
15. Consider the following statements about coinage during Akbar’s reign:
Coins were minted in three metals, namely gold, silver and copper.
There was free and open minting system and mints were widely distributed.
16. Match the following works with their respective writers or compilers:
Padshah Nama – Muhammad Kazim
Humayun Nama – Gulbadan Begum
Alamgir Nama – Abdul Hamid Lahori
Akbar Nama – Abul Fazl
17. Which of the following statements about ‘Ashtapradhan’ in Maratha administration is incorrect?
18. Consider the following statements:
Ali Adil Shah appointed the well-known Sanskrit scholar ‘Waman Pandit’ in his court.
Gol Gumbaz, built in 1660, was a mausoleum for Ibrahim Adil Shah.
Mohammad Adil Shah composed a book called ‘Kitab-i-Nauras’.
Ibrahim Adil Shah-II was also called ‘Jagat Guru’.
19. Match the following:
Amatya – Finance Minister
Waqianavis – Officer recording proceedings of the court
Sachiv – In-charge of the Royal Secretariat
Sumant – Foreign Minister
20. Arrange the following foreign travellers in chronological order of their visit to Vijayanagara kingdom:
Abdur Razzaq
Afanasy Nikitin
Domingo Paes
Fernao Nuniz & Nicolo Conti
21. Which of the following statements about French East India Company is/are correct?
French East India Company’s headquarters were shifted to Pondicherry from Surat.
It had a central board of directors which was known as ‘Gentlemen Seventeen’.
One of its notable features was constant quarrels and rivalry among its officers which affected its operations in India.
22. Arrange the following in chronological order:
Cornwallis assumes office as Governor General for the first time
The Third Anglo-Mysore War
Battle of Kharda between the Nizam and the Marathas
D. Ranjit Singh captures Lahore & E.Vellore Mutiny
23. Which of the following statements are correct?
Raja Rammohan Roy originally wrote ‘Gift to Monotheists’ in Persian language.
Raja Rammohan Roy believed that the ancient Hindu texts preached Monotheism.
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Widow Remarriage Association.
Founders of Paramahansa Mandali believed in Monotheism.
24. Which of the following statements are correct?
The first public theatre named ‘National Theatre’ was set up in Calcutta in 1872.
Neeldarpan (1860) was on the oppression of indigo planters in Bengal.
Michael Madhusudan Datta wrote Neeldarpan (1860).
Ananda Math (1882) was set up against the background of the Sanyasi rebellion.
25. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
Indian National Congress passed ‘Purna Swaraj’ resolution.
Nehru Report was submitted at Lucknow Session of the All Party Conference.
Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker left the Congress & First Round Table Conference. .
26. Which of the following reformers was not among the founders of a religious association called ‘Rehnumai Mazadayasan Sabha’?
27. The Famine Enquiry Commission of 1880 led by Sir Richard Strachey is associated with which policy shift?
28. Arrange the following events related to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in chronological order:
British authorities passed the Rowlatt Act.
General Dyer ordered troops to open fire on unarmed protesters.
Mass protest meeting held at Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar.
Martial law is imposed in Amritsar.
29. Which of the following were objectives of the All India Kisan Sabha formed in 1936?
To fight for the rights of peasants and agricultural workers
To demand better working conditions in factories
To advocate for land reforms and redistribution of land
To support the Indian National Congress in its struggle for Independence
30. Arrange the following events related to the Partition of India in chronological order:
Mountbatten Plan announced.
Direct Action Day observed by the Muslim League.
Radcliffe Line drawn to demarcate India and Pakistan.
Indian Independence Act passed by the British Parliament.
31. Consider the following statements:
At Dhulikatta, a fortified town was excavated.
It was situated amidst fertile red soil on the banks of river Godavari.
At the centre of the Dhulikatta fort were found a palace complex, residential quarters and granaries.
Most of these structures were built with stone. Which of the above statements are correct?
32. Which among the following modern places was exemplified as ‘Pottalikanagara’ in the Western Chalukyan inscriptions?
33. Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to the organization of the army of the Velamas of Rachakonda and Devarakonda?
34. Which of the following sites belonged to Mahayana Buddhist establishment?
35. Which of the following statements about Vishnukundins are correct?
Vishnukundins’ family deity was Sriparvataswamy.
Since they were staunch followers of Vedic religion, they persecuted followers of Buddhism and Jainism.
They established Ghatikas (Vedic Schools) and made significant contribution towards growth of literacy.
Kesari (Lion) was the emblem of Vishnukundins. :
36. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Arikesari II erected a triumph pillar at Kalapriyam.
Adityalaya was built at Vemulavada.
37. In which place during the time of Qutbshahis were tombs of two holy men, one a Hindu and another a Muslim, both attracting a large number of people, noticed?
38. Mulla Wajahi wrote the story of Bhagmati and Mohammad Quli Qutb Shah in a poetic form. What was this poem called?
39. Identify the correct pairs:
Kusumayudha I – Ranamardanavaya-kulatilaka
Kusumaditya – Muttanegalla
Nagatiraja – Vivekanarayana
Kusumayudha V – Marbalakesari
40. Identify the wrong pair:
41. Consider the following statements:
‘Kharitas’ were poetic Persian court letters written to the Nizam in reply to the farmans.
The ‘Siyahaya’ is the official daily record of the Hyderabad Court written in classical Persian language.
42. Nizam-ul-Mulk Asafjah was in-charge of viceroyalty consisting of six subas of the Mughal Deccan. Identify them.
43. Who among the following built the Ujjain Mahankali Temple in Secunderabad?
44. Hyderabad State Congress organised many Border camps as a part of ‘Join India Movement’. Identify the in-charge leaders of the Border Camps and match them:
Chanda Camp – K.V. Keshavulu
Balharsha – Kodati Narayana Rao
Sirivancha – K.V. Narsinga Rao
Repala – Sriramulu
45. In the second session of the Andhra Mahasabha, who among the following leaders introduced the resolution demanding the abolition of untouchability and provision of equal rights to the Scheduled Castes?
46. Match the following sessions of Andhra Maha Sabha with the President of the session:
A. Fourth Andhra Maha Sabha I. Konda Venkata Ranga Reddy
B. Fifth Andhra Maha Sabha II. Mandumula Narsinga Rao
C. Sixth Andhra Maha Sabha III. Ravi Narayan Reddy
D. Eighth Andhra Maha Sabha IV. Suravaram Pratapa Reddy & V. Madapati Hanumantha Rao
47. Consider the following statements:
Nadimpalli Sundaramma started Andhra Sodari Samajam.
Bharata Mahila Samajam was started by Yamini Purna Tilakam. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
48. Identify the literary organisation started by Suravaram Pratapa Reddy in 1941.
49. Consider the following statements:
In the mid 18th century the Gond tribals led by Ramji Gond revolted against the British in Adilabad.
He ruled the area independently with Nirmal as the capital.
They were treated harshly by the British and 1,000 of them along with Ramji Gond were hanged to a banyan tree near Nirmal. This tree came to be known as ‘Veyyi Urula Marri’.
Kumaram Bheem gave the slogan ‘Jal-Jungle-Jameen’. Which of the above statements are correct?
50. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
The Nizam’s forces in Warangal surrendered to Major General Rudra.
Surrender of Major General E.L. Edroos, the chief of Nizam’s Army.
Resignation of the Ministry of Mir Laik Ali.
Indian army occupied Sholapur, Naldurg and Thuljapur under the leadership of Major General J.N. Choudhary. & E. Withdrawal of the complaint against India from the United Nations Security Council by the Nizam. :
51. Which of the following are the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935?
Federation and Provincial Autonomy
Dyarchy at the Centre
Dyarchy in Provinces
Distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and Provinces
52. Consider the following statements in relation to making of the Constitution:
India chose Parliamentary system over Presidential system
Assessment of responsibility was more preferred than the stability of Government
53. Consider the following statements in relation to the composition of the Constituent Assembly:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan
Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective geographical areas
Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities – Muslims, Sikhs and General
54. Arrange the following cases related to Basic Structure Doctrine of Indian Constitution in chronological order:
Golaknath Case
Minerva Mills Case
Keshavanand Bharti Case
Champakam Dorairajan Case
55. Match the following: Committee of Constituent Assembly and Chairman
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights I. Jawaharlal Nehru
Union Constitution Committee II. Vallabhbhai Patel
Steering Committee III. B.R. Ambedkar
Drafting Committee IV. Rajendra Prasad & E. House Committee V. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
56. Which of the following is/are true about the writ of Mandamus?
It is applicable only in the case of violation of fundamental rights
It is applicable against the government itself and also against inferior courts and other judicial bodies
It is also to direct a government official not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional
It is also to enforce the performance of a statutory duty in case an officer refuses to do so
57. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India envisages ‘Settlement of International Disputes by Arbitration’?
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
They are absolute in nature.
They are justiciable in nature.
They are meant to promote Political Democracy
They have been taken from the Irish Constitution
59. Consider the following statements:
Article 17 of the Constitution is related to the abolition of untouchability
In case of violation of Article 17 by a private individual, action can be initiated against him/her
60. Arrange the following fundamental rights in order of correct sequence as they appear in the Constitution of India:
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Right to Freedom of Religion
Right to Freedom
Right to Equality & E. Cultural and Educational Rights
61. Consider the following statements:
The Parliament possesses the power of extra-territorial legislation
A State can have the power to affect persons or property outside its borders and this power can be claimed by State Legislatures
62. Consider the following statements:
The Union of India cannot be said to be the result of any compact or agreement between States, which can be broken
Neither before nor under the Act of 1935, were the Provinces of India in any sense sovereign states, all powers were unitary, and the Government of India Act, 1935 has laid the basis for Indian Federalism
63. Consider the following statements:
Both Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List
State Legislature has the power to make law on any subject matter mentioned in the Concurrent List
64. Arrange the following developments related to Centre-State relations in chronological order:
Anandpur Sahib Resolution
Rajamannar Committee
West Bengal Memorandum
Justice Punchhi Commission
65. Which of the following commission/committee recommended the establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution?
66. Consider the following statements in relation to the impeachment of the President of India:
The President of India can be impeached on the ground of violation of the Constitution.
The meaning of the violation of the Constitution is explained in Article 61(2).
The impeachment of the President is a quasi-judicial procedure. Which of the above statements are correct?
67. Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State in the Constitution?
Reservation of a bill for consideration of the President.
Recommendation for imposition of President’s Rule in a State.
Appointing Chief Secretary of the State.
Seeking information from the Chief Minister regarding administrative and legislative matters. :
68. Match the following: Article – Explanation
A. Article 74 I. Appointment of Prime Minister
B. Article 75 II. Council of Ministers to aid and advise President
C. Article 61 III. Power of President to grant pardon
D. Article 72 IV. Procedure for impeachment of President
69. Which of the following statements are correct?
A State Legislature cannot initiate a bill for amendment of the Constitution.
Joint session of Parliament can be held to solve a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament in case of Constitutional Amendment bill.
The previous sanction of the President is not required to introduce a bill for amendment of the Constitution.
It is obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment bill when it is presented by the Parliament. :
70. Consider the following statements:
The executive powers of the President shall be exercised in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
The effect of the Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978 is that except in certain marginal cases referred to by the Supreme Court, a refusal to act as per the advice of the Council of Ministers can lead to impeachment of the President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
71. Arrange the Constitutional Amendments related to the following subjects in chronological order:
Reducing age of voting from 21 years to 18 years.
Women Reservation in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Ninth Schedule
EWS Reservation. & E. Right to form Cooperative Societies. & :
72. Match the following Constitutional Amendment Acts with their respective objectives: Amendment Act – Objective
A. The 1st Amendment Act, 1951 I. Settled certain boundary disputes between India and Pakistan
B. The 9th Amendment Act, 1960 II. Acquiring and transferring certain territories between India and Bangladesh
C. The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 III. Goods and Services Tax
D. The 101st Amendment Act, 2016 IV. Securing the constitutional validity of Zamindari abolition laws
73. Arrange the following steps in the procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India for provisions that affect the Federal Structure in sequential order of the steps:
Initiation of the bill in either House of the Parliament.
Assent by State Legislatures of not less than half of the States.
Assent by President.
Passage by each House by 50 percent of total membership and majority of not less than 2/3rd members present and voting. :
74. Which one of the following amendment to the Indian Constitution had added explanations to Article 3 of the Constitution?
75. Identify from the following items which require ratification by State Legislatures for Constitutional Amendment to bring changes in it:
Article 55
Chapter IV of Part V
Chapter I of Part XI
Any List in the Seventh Schedule :
76. The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 is not applicable to which of the following States of India?
Nagaland
Arunachal Pradesh
Meghalaya
Sikkim :
77. Which of the following functions are provided to the Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Small scale industries, including food processing industries
Libraries
Cattle pounds; prevention of cruelty to animals
Technical Training and Vocational Education & E. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry. & :
78. Consider the following statements with regard to dissolution of Municipalities:
Municipality must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution.
No amendment of any law which is in force shall cause dissolution of a Municipality before the expiry of the five year term. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
79. The functions of a Municipal Corporation as laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution include:
Slum improvement and upgradation
Roads and bridges
Urban poverty alleviation
Prevention of cruelty to animals Which of the above are correct?
80. In order to democratize the District Planning Committee (DPC), how many members should be elected from Panchayats at the District level and Municipalities?
81. Consider the following with regard to 74th Constitutional Amendment:
Ward Committees can be established in Municipalities with a population of 3 lakhs or more.
State Legislatures decide the composition of Ward Committees.
Metropolitan area shall consist of population 10 lakh or more.
Seats in Municipalities can also be filled by nomination.
82. Consider the following statements:
B.P. Jeevan Reddy Committee, suggested ‘None of the above’ (NOTA) option in EVMs.
The Supreme Court of India pronounced a judgement on the NOTA option in EVMs and ballot papers.
The Supreme Court of India passed the judgement based on a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on the right to negative vote.
83. From the time elections are announced by the Election Commission, Ministers and other authorities:
Shall not announce any financial grants in any form or promises thereof.
Shall not lay foundation stones of projects or schemes of any kind.
Shall not make any promise of construction of roads.
Shall be permitted to make ad-hoc appointments in Government on non-permanent basis.
84. Arrange the following committees on electoral reforms in India in chronological order:
Dinesh Goswami Committee
Vohra Committee
Tarkunde Committee
Indrajit Gupta Committee
85. Consider the following in relation to the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India:
EVM was first conceived in 1977.
Its prototype was developed by the Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET).
In 1982, EVMs were used on a pilot basis to conduct elections.
In the 2004 Lok Sabha elections, the EVMs were used in all 543 constituencies.
86. Consider the following statements with respect to Election Commission of India:
The Election Commission of India after consent from the President, is empowered to determine the manner in which the Lok Sabha seats are allotted to each State.
The Election Commission of India allots symbols to parties.
87. District Judges are appointed by:
88. Which of the following statements are correct regarding writs issued by the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?
The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against public authorities only.
The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body.
The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
The writ of Certiorari is available against legislative bodies and private individuals.
89. Which of the following rights are read in Article 21 by Supreme Court in its various judgements?
Right to good health
Right to reputation
Right to go abroad
Right to doctor’s assistance
90. Which of the following statements is correct about the Judicial Review in the context of the Indian Constitution?
91. Consider the following objectives of the National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms, 2011:
To study and recommend increasing the strength of Judges in Supreme Court and certain High Courts
Increasing access and reducing delays and arrears in the system
Enhancing accountability through structural change and by setting performance standards and capacities
92. Which of the following statements are correct regarding these commissions?
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes consists of a Chairman, a Vice Chairman and 3 members.
The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was established by amending Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
The National Commission for Backward Classes consists of one Chairman, three Vice Chairmen and 5 members.
93. The appointment of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities in India is done by:
94. Consider the following statements in relation to the National Human Rights Commission:
It was established in 1995.
It was established under the statute of the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA).
It was established in conformity with the Paris Principles, 1991.
95. As per Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Minister in-charge of Tribal Welfare, in which of the following States?
96. The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 amended which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution to facilitate EWS reservation?
97. Match the following demands for Statehood/Sub-autonomy with their respective States: A. Maru Pradesh B. Kosala Rajya C. Kodagu D. Bodoland
A. Maru Pradesh I. Assam
B. Kosala Rajya II. Rajasthan
C. Kodagu III. Odisha
D. Bodoland IV. Kerala & V. Karnataka
98. The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) include:
Assam Rifles (AR)
Border Security Force (BSF)
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Defence Security Guard (DSG) Which of the above are correct?
99. What are the roles and functions of the Left Wing Extremism Division (LWE) of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India?
Capacity building of States to combat Left Wing Extremism (LWE) through schemes of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Deployment of Army and Air Force in LWE affected States.
Providing assistance to State Governments for initiatives to combat LWE.
100. Which of the following pairs are matched correctly in relation to insurgency groups and their States?
A. Garo National Liberation Army – Meghalaya
B. Kamtapur Liberation Organisation – Assam
C. Kanglei Yawol Kanna Lup – Manipur
D. People’s Liberation Army – Nagaland
101. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Jati’?
Jatis are endogamous units.
Considerations of purity and pollution determine the interaction between different units.
102. Which of the following statements about M.N. Srinivas’s view on caste system are correct?
M.N. Srinivas views caste as a segmentary system.
For M.N. Srinivas, hierarchy is the core or the essence of the caste system.
M.N. Srinivas did not find close relationship between caste and occupation.
For M.N. Srinivas, caste is divided into sub-castes.
103. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : Social stratification refers to the institutionalized division of society into hierarchically arranged social groups.
Reason (R) : Enduring patterns of inequality founded upon customary practices results in the hierarchical division of society.
104. Match the following books and authors: Book Author
A. Who were the Shudras? I. M.N. Srinivas
B. The Coming of the Devi: Adivasi Assertion in Western India II. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Caste, Class and Power: Changing Patterns of Stratification in a Tanjore Village III. David Hardiman
D. Religion and Society Among the Coorgs of South India IV. André Beteille.
105. Which of the following statements about shifting cultivation are correct?
It is called ‘Podu’ in Andhra Pradesh.
It is called Jhum among the tribes of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is called Bewar in North Odisha.
It is called Bringal in Madhya Pradesh.
106. Which of the following are part of ‘the four noble truths’ in Buddhism?
Sorrow
Source of sorrow is ignorance and desire
Sorrow can be ended if desire is overcome
The way to overcome desire and sorrow is through ‘the tenfold path’
107. When a person changes his residence or job without status change, such a change is called as:
Vertical mobility
Horizontal mobility
108. Which of the following is the best example of a closed system of stratification?
109. Match the following tribal festivals with the tribes associated with them: Tribal Festival Tribe
A. Sarhul – I. Koya
B. Bhagoria – II. Oraon
C. Medaram Jathara – III. Ao
D. Moatsu – IV. Bhil. :
110. Who among the following is associated with subaltern studies?
111. The family set up after one’s marriage is called as :
112. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under Dayabhaga system, sons inherit father’s property only after father’s death.
Under Mitakshara system, a son acquires the right to ancestral property since birth.
113. Which of the following Gurudwaras is not a takht (a seat of spiritual authority) of Sikhism?
114. Which one of the following terms refers to the process by which certain groups are wholly or partly denied from full participation in the social, economic, cultural, and political life in a society?
115. The Assistance to Persons with Disabilities for Purchase/Fitting of Aids/Appliances Scheme was in operation by the Government of India since the year:
116. Which of the following statements on Anti-Human Trafficking Cell launched by the National Commission for Women are correct?
It aims to enhance awareness among law enforcement officials on human trafficking.
It facilitates capacity building to the law enforcement officials on human trafficking.
It established special courts for prosecution of offenders of human trafficking.
117. Punjabi Suba Movement was a/an:
118. The main objectives of the Manya Sangam established by Bhagya Reddy Verma are:
To educate the untouchables.
To oppose child marriages.
To oppose Chanda Rail project.
To oppose Devadasi and Jogin practices.
119. Arrange the following events related to Dalit movement in chronological order:
Formation of ‘The Dalit Panthers’.
Formation of the National Federation of Dalit Women (NFDW).
Establishment of the Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation (BAMCEF).
Formation of the Bharatiya Bauddha Mahasabha (Buddhist Society of India).
120. Arrange the following social reform movements in India in chronological order:
Brahmo Samaj
Prarthana Samaj
Arya Samaj
Satnami Movement
121. Who was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj?
122. In 2014, at the time of formation of the State, how many districts in Telangana were covered under the Backward Regions Grant Fund (BRGF)?
123. Which of the following concepts describes the process of cultural mobility in the traditional social structure in India?
124. Which of the following Forest Conservation Movement was inspired by the Chipko Movement?
125. During the 1960s movement, the Bodos demanded for which separate state?
126. Which of the following statements on New Social Movements is/are correct?
These movements are primarily concerned with social and cultural spheres.
In these movements, mobilization occurs in civil society.
127. Which of the following statements related to the Dalit Panthers Movement are correct?
It fought against caste discrimination.
It was founded by Namdeo Dhasal and J.V. Pawar.
It was inspired by the Black Panther Party.
It was a radical departure from earlier Dalit movements as it emphasised on militancy and revolutionary approach.
128. Which of the following statements on Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Movement are correct?
It was led by Sri Narayana Guru Swamy.
It was a backward classes movement.
It was largely confined to Karnataka only.
It fought for the rights of Izhavas.
129. Which of the following statements on ethnicity, according to social constructionist approach, are correct?
Ethnicity emphasizes cultural differences.
Ethnicity is cultural.
Ethnicity is economical.
Ethnicity as a social identity is both collective and individual.
130. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the below-mentioned social movements in India?
The Satya Shodak Samaj, founded by Jyotiba Phule, criticised the Hindu religion for creating inequality in society.
The Arya Samaj, founded by Dayanand Saraswati, removed the element of birth as the basis of hierarchy.
131. The Nirbhaya Act is formally referred to as
132. The National Child Labour Project (NCLP) scheme was initiated in the year
133. Arrange the following social legislations in chronological order of their enactment
The Child Marriage Restraint Act
The Special Marriage Act
Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act
Hindu Marriage Act
134. With reference to the PESA Act, 1996, which of the following statements are correct?
It gives special powers to the Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas.
It was established after Bhuria Committee recommendations in 1995.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal ministry for implementation.
135. Arrange the following Commissions on Education in India in chronological order
National Commission for Higher Education and Research
Radhakrishnan Commission on University Education
Kothari Commission
University Grants Commission
136. Which of the following statements related to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 is/are correct?
It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth.
The Act mandates establishment of sero-surveillance centres.
Every establishment must designate a complaint officer.
137. Which of the following statements regarding SVAMITVA scheme is/are correct?
It establishes clear ownership of property in rural areas.
Supports preparation of a better Gram Panchayat Plan.
138. Which of the following statements with reference to the NCST are correct?
It was set up by amending Article 338.
Established through 89th Amendment Act.
Members hold office for five years.
At least one member should be a woman.
139. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
Guarantees justice to women suffering domestic violence.
Proper implementation needs awareness.
140. Arrange the following Women Empowerment Schemes chronologically
NRLM focusing on SHGs
Mahila Samakhya Programme
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
PMMVY financial assistance to pregnant women
141. Match the Legislative Acts with their years
A. The Bengal Sati Regulation I. 1976
B. The Hindu Widows Remarriage and Property Act II. 1870
C. Female Infanticide Act III. 1989
D. Equal Remuneration Act IV. 1829
142. Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) focuses on reducing inequalities?
143. Which section of the Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994 prohibits advertisement?
144. Darshanam Mogulaiah, the Padma Shri recipient, is known for revitalizing
145. Who is the author of “The Fall and Rise of Telangana”?
146. Which Telangana districts were categorized as ‘Most Hungry’ by the 12th Five-Year Plan?
147. ‘Bhagela system’ in Telangana refers to
148. Which statements about Jogini practice are correct?
Most labeled Joginis belong to marginalized groups.
Poverty and superstition play roles.
Abolished in 1957.
149. When was the Sri Krishnadevaraya Bhasha Nilayam established?
150. Which place is included in UNESCO tentative list for saree weaving?
Here is the link to TSPSC Group 2 paper 1 Mock test (2024) – TSPSC Group 2 2024 Paper 1 Mock Test
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